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1. (001) When is it appropriate for a supervisor to place an AF Form 931 in an airman’s training record?

a. After the supervisor conducts the new airman’s initial feedback

b. Before a Field Evaluation questionnaire is completed

c. After a 60 day feedback is conducted

d. Never

2. (001) When assessing the quality of formal training course graduates, which feedback is the method not evaluated by the course for required action?

a. Surveys

b. Written Letters

c. Electronic mail

d. Telephone conversations

3. (001) The occupational measurement squadron conducts a job inventory survey to compel data for an occupational survey report once every

a. 6 months

b. year

c. 2 years

d. 3 years

4. (002) Who normally develops the daily surgery schedule of operations?

a. Nurse manager

b. Chief of surgery

c. Operating room supervisor

d. NCOIC

5. (002) To maintain a surgical technician’s “war-readiness”, strict specialization in daily scheduling should be

a. encouraged to increase expertise in one surgical specialty

b. discouraged to increase expertise in one surgical specialty

c. encouraged to promote a broad base of experience

d. discouraged to promote a broad base of experience

6. (003) Where is the best place to look for a chart outlining career paths and progression?

a. Your CFETP

b. The 5 level CDC

c. Your STS

d. The 7 level CDC

7. (003) When surgical service trainees initial an item in the STS portion of the CFETP, the trainees are

a. certifying they are trained on the item

b. acknowledging they need training on the item

c. indicating they are beginning training on the item

d. not performing the item as part of their normal duties

8. (003) When is training conducted for supervisors of civilian employees?

a. Upon being assigned to supervise

b. Before 5 level upgrade training is completed

c. Upon being assigned to supervise two or more employees

d. Before completion of the Noncommissioned Officer’s Academy

9. (004) Who must attend the Air Force Supervisor Safety Course?

a. All Air Force personnel

b. All first-level supervisors

c. Only the medical facility safety officer

d. Only the functional area safety NCO

10. (004) Keeping one step ahead of or anticipating a potential problem is a key to

a. alertness

b. discipline

c. operational risk management

d. hazard management avoidance

11. (004) When should an AF Form 765 be placed in a patient’s medical records?

a. After the safety officer reviews it

b. After review by the hospital commander and safety committee

c. as soon as the form is filled out and signed by the hospital legal adviser

d. Under no circumstances should it be filed in a patient’s record

12. (004) What form do you use to document any situation or condition that may pose a risk?

a. MSDS

b. AF Form 457

c. AF Form 765

d. AF Form 55

13. (004) What form (or approved equivalent) should be used to document AF Hazardous Communication training?

a. MSDS

b. AF Form 457

c. AF Form 765

d. AF Form 55

14. (005) Patient rights evolved from and fall under

a. a conglomeration of state laws

b. the Code of Federal Regulations

c. the Constitution of the United States

d. ethical Codes of Conduct all medical personnel should follow

15. (005) Under the right of informed consent, information of the patient needs to make a knowledgeable decision should be

a. witnessed

b. in writing

c. in layman’s terms

d. provided to family member

16. (006) What type of human need is most patient care and treatment designed to fulfill?

a. Sexual

b. Physical

c. Spiritual

d. Psychological

17. (006) What need suffers a critical blow when a patient is unnecessarily exposed or examined?

a. Safety

b. Belonging

c. Self-Esteem

d. Self-actualization

18. (006) The most common patient fear that originates from the patient’s ignorance or misunderstanding of surgical procedures and anesthesia is fear of

a. pain

b. anesthesia

c. the unknown

d. poor prognosis

19. (006) What action should a surgical specialist take if a patient says before surgery that he or she is afraid of dying during surgery?

a. Reassure the patient that this will not happen

b. Report the comment immediately to a licensed practitioner

c. Respond to the patient that most patients feel that way before an operation

d. Record the incident on the preoperative nursing record and fill out an incident statement

20. (007) As part of the Performance Improvement, each wing, group, or squadron develops checklists to conduct

a. training

b. accreditation

c. unit self assessment

d. total quality management

21. (007) The means to identify and act on problems in the health care setting that have caused or may cause harm to patients, visitors, employees, or property, that has a main purpose of controlling medico-legal liability, is known as

a. risk management

b. total quality management

c. continuous improvement

d. hazardous communication

22. (008) The area of performance improvement that most directly relates to every aspect of your job is

a. tissue review

b. infection control

c. risk management

d. surgical case review

23. (008) A performance improvement tool that is conducted by an operating room nurse the day before surgery is the

a. records review

b. patient care audit

c. preoperative interview

d. performance appraisal

24. (008) The ethic you violate if you see a hole in the surgeon’s glove and say or do nothing is

a. peer review

b. empowerment

c. self-assessment

d. surgical conscience

25. (009) under MEPRS, how often is each person’s work hours reported to the resource management office?

a. daily

b. weekly

c. monthly

d. quarterly

26. (009) A generic measurement of the number of work-hours in a one-month period is known as

a. expense assignment

b. workload assignment

c. a full-time equivalent

d. available time equivalent

27. (009) The performance factors used to quantify the amount of work accomplished by a work center are known as

a. man-hour data

b. workload data

c. manpower standards

d. unit manpower requirements

28. (009) What is the primary tool used to make budgetary, manpower, and other important resource allocation decisions within a medical facility?

a. Business Case Analysis

b. Universal Cost Account

c. Authorization Change Request or Change Notice

d. MEPRS

29. (010) What resource management document is generally used where temporary or unusual situations occur?

a. Manpower Guide

b. Manpower Standard

c. Authorization Change Request

d. Unit Personnel Manpower Roster

30. (010) The item that shows authorized manpower spaces by functional account is referred to as the Unit

a. Management Document

b. Manpower Document

c. Management Roster

d. Manpower Guide

31. (011) It is critical that you understand your patient care needs because this will determine the

a. type of cases you can perform in the operating room or clinic

b. amount of cases you can perform in the operating room or clinic

c. proper skill level of technicians needed to perform cases in the operating room or clinic

d. proper nursing skills and level of care needed to perform cases in the operating room or clinic

32. (012) A detailed plan for the acquisition and use of finances and other resources for the operation of your section is known as

a. executing

b. bogeying

c. budgeting

d. accounting

33. (012) From a resource management perspective, a duty section is known as a

a. bogey

b. cost center

c. business office

d. responsibility center

34. (012) The cost center manager submits the cost center budget request to the

a. resource advisory office

b. medical group commander

c. resource management office

d. medical equipment maintenance office

35. (013) An item of medical equipment with a unit cost greater than $2,500 but less than $100,000, a life expectancy of at least five years, and maintains its identity during use is classified as

a. medical expense equipment

b. durable medical supply item

c. medical investment equipment

d. maintenance significant supply item

36. (013) Medical supply items cost

a. between $2,500 and $250,00 and has a life expectance of over five years

b. over $250,000 and has a life expectancy of over five years

c. less than $5,000, is durable and requires maintenance

d. less than $2,500 and does not require maintenance

37. (014) How can you request a nonrecurring routine issue from supply?

a. DD Form 1348-6

b. AF Form 601

c. Order the item through the Internal Distribution Operation

d. Submit DD Form 1348-6

38. (014) What paperwork is filled out and used to turn in supplies to medical logistics?

a. DD Form 1348-6

b. AF Form 601

c. Using activity back order report

d. Shopping guide

39. (014) The main purpose of the DMLSS system is to

a. preclude problems with the supply system

b. prevent a cost center from overstocking supplies

c. provide a computerized method of ordering supplies

d. provide superior customer support while lowering costs

40. (014) Which area of the DMLSS system lets you see all the supple items in the data base?

a. Customer catalog

b. DMLSS system inbox

c. Medical treatment facility catalog

d. Customer area inventory management

41. (015) Who is responsible for completing the AF Form 601 to transfer a piece of equipment between accounts?

a. Losing custodian

b. Gaining custodian

c. Medical equipment repair activity

d. MEMO

42. (015) What customer support listing is produced each time medical logistics processes a change action affecting a custodian’s equipment account?

a. Back order report

b. CAL

c. CRLL

d. Using activity issue/turn-in summary

43. (015) What material reference tool can be used by property custodians to review excess material available for redistribution?

a.AFMLL

b. Using activity issue/turn-in summary

c. CRL

d. CAL

44. (016) Who appoints property custodians within each area of unit of the MTF?

a. Medical group commander

b. Unit OIC

c. Medical logistics flight commander

d. Unit NCOIC

45. (016) Before signing the custody receipt/locator listing to assume custodial responsibility for equipment, you should

a. perform a thorough inventory

b. prepare your three-year budget

c. submit AF Form 601

d. submit DD Form 1348-6

46. (017) Air Force employees can voluntarily reimburse the government for lost, damaged or destroyed property as long as the amount is less than

a. $500

b. $750

c. $1000

d. $1500

47. (017) A DD Form 200 is filled out when the

a. property is more than $500

b. employee admits financial liability

c. cost of the item involved is over $300

d. employee is willing to pay for the item

48. (018) Where in the medical group organization does CSS usually fall?

a. Under medical logistics in the medical support flight

b. Above medical logistics in the medical support flight

c. Under surgical services in the medical operations flight

d. Above surgical services in the medical operations flight

49. (018) The primary purpose of CSS is

a. service

b. sterilization

c. distribution

d. administration

50. (019) Which US Public Health Agency provides valuable information to hospitals outlining how infection control programs should be developed and operated?

a. AORN

b. CDC

c. AAMI

d. JCAHO

51. (019) Who can override the recommendations or actions of the ICC?

a. Operating surgeon

b. OIC of the operating room

c. Surgical services committee

d. Medical staff executive committee

52. (019) The infection control officer in an Air Force medical facility is usually a

a. laboratory officer with special training in microbiology

b. registered nurse trained in microbiology and epidemiology

c. doctor specializing in internal medicine and clinical research

d. senior enlisted medical technician trained in research methodology

53. (020) What infection control activity includes data collection and analysis?

a. Control

b. Reporting

c. Prevention

d. Surveillance

54. (020) The CDC surgical wound classification should be assigned at the

a. end of each surgical procedure

b. beginning of each surgical procedure

c. end of elective (scheduled) surgical procedures only

d. beginning of elective (scheduled) surgical procedures only

55. (020) Surgical wound classification serves all of the following purposes except

a. alerting surgical personnel to wounds with a high risk of infection

b. helping infection control personnel predict which wounds might become infected

c. assisting laboratory personnel in identifying specific pathogenic microorganisms

d. helping surgeons evaluate personal infection rates and compare surgical techniques

56. (020) Standard precautions must be used on

a. all surgical procedures

b. CDC class II, clean-contaminated surgical procedures only

c. CDC class III, contaminated surgical procedures only

d. CDC class IV, dirty or infected surgical procedures only

57. (021) A sterilizer’s thermometer measure the

a. steam temperature as it enters the chamber at the steam inlet port

b. sterilizer steam jacket temperature at the steam supple line junction

c. exhaust line external temperature which is the coolest area outside the sterilizer chamber

d. exhaust line internal temperature which is the coolest area inside the sterilizer chamber

58. (021) Using the event-related method of shelf-life, biological testing of steam sterilizers must be done

a. daily

b. weekly

c. monthly

d. in every load

59. (021) When a positive biological test is indicated, why is the sterilizer immediately retested?

a. A false positive result may have occurred

b. A false negative result may have occurred

c. because the sterilizer may have been turned off

d. because the steam inlet valve may have froze shut during sterilization

60. (022) What basic rule do you follow when handling sterile packaged items?

a. hand-carry supplies close to your body, cradled in your arms

b. Wear sterile gloves anytime you are handling wrapped sterile supplies

c. Handle supplies as little as possible between the time of sterilization and use

d. Never let sterile supplies be handled by the same person twice following sterilization

61. (022) If a reusable sterile peel-packed item falls, or is dropped, on the floor, it may?

a. be used when picked up quickly enough

b. not be used unless it is reprocessed

c. be used as there is typically no contamination

d. never be used again due to dirt and microbes in the package

62. (022) What is the minimum number of exchanges per hour recommended for sterile storage areas?

a. 5

b. 10

c. 15

d. 20

63. (022) What type of storage is preferred for storage of sterile items?

a. storage bins

b. supply carts

c. open shelves

d. closed cabinets

64. (023) The most common way for a patient to be scheduled for an appointment is a specialty clinic is

a. on a walk-in basis

b. through a consult

c. to call the specialty clinic

d. through central appointments

65. (024) The main reason for correctly documenting a medical record is to

a. ensure your clinic is properly named

b. ensure proper credit for the patient visit

c. provide a chorological record of patient care

d. get the maximum dollar amount from third party collections

66. (024) Who is responsible for correctly coding the patient’s visit to see a provider?

a. Technician

b. Team nurse

c. Patient’s provider

d. Resource management office

67. (024) The main purpose behind the coding of a patient’s visit is to

a. ensure your clinic is properly manned

b. ensure proper credit for the patient visit

c. provide a chronological record of patient care

d. get the maximum dollar amount from third-party collections

68. (025) Why are good telephone techniques important for clinic personnel?

a. They can pursue part-time work in telemarketing

b. Patients will be at ease and convinced you have an outstanding clinic

c. Air Force policy directs good telephone techniques in all medical facilities

d. Patients are influenced by the presence or absence of good telephone technique

69. (025) How should you handle a telephone call for the surgeon if he or she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold?

a. take a message and hand it to the surgeon at the earliest opportunity

b. Knock on the door and tell the surgeon he or she has a telephone call

c. Inform the caller the doctor is busy and ask him or her to try and call back later

d. inform the caller of the doctor is not taking calls during appointment hours

70. (026) Which type of skills is the RSVP designed to provide?

a. Normal

b. Wartime

c. Advanced

d. Peacetime

71. (027) Once notified, within how many hours must the MFST be ready to deploy?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

72. (028) How many instrument set can be sterilized at one time in an EMEDS basic package?

a.1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

73. (028) Which increment of the surgical augmentation team authorizes both a surgical technician and surgical nurse?

a. EMEDS Basic

b. MFST

c. EMEDS + 10

d. EMEDS + 25

74. (029) In a monopolar system, the inactive electrode is usually

a. a separate patient ground plate or pad

b. at the tip of a pencil-like handpiece

c. on side of a pair of forceps

d. not necessary

75. (029) In a bipolar system, the active electrode is usually

a. a separate patient ground plate or pad

b. at the top of a pencil-like handpiece

c. one side of a pair of forceps

d. not necessary

76. (030) Some ligating clips have small serrations on the inside surface to

a. lock the ends of the two legs together

b. keep the clip from slipping after application

c. prevent the clip from falling out of the applicator

d. allow the tissue to granulate and encapsulate the clips

77. (030) the most noticeable advantage of surgical staplers is that they

a. save much time

b. save much money

c. are easy to use and require no special training

d. allow misplaced staples to be easily removed and replaced

78. (031) When one or more superficial layers of the would split open, we refer to the condition as a

a. total disruption

b. partial dehiscence

c. ruptured hematoma

d. complete evisceration

79. (031) Sutures placed with the main intent of holding wound edges together are called

a. stay sutures

b. traction sutures

c. a vertical suture line

d. the primary suture line

80. (031) The knots of a skin suture are tied to one side of the incision to

a. keep the suture from being incorporated into the wound

b. lock the stitches together in a chain-pattern to reinforce the closure

c. increase the tensile strength of the suture at one if its weakest points

d. allow antibiotic ointments and/or dressing to make maximum contact with the incision

81. (031) What suture stitch is often used by OB/GYN surgeons to ligate the ligaments during a hysterectomy?

a. Noncrushing B

b. Figure of eight

c. Continuous horizontal mattress

d. Interrupted horizontal mattress

82. (031) The special suturing technique used solely for closing the outer layer of a gastro-intestinal anastomosis is the

a. subcuticular

b. Cushing inverting

c. purse string suture

d. locking over-and-over

83. (031) Which layer is closed with a suture material that retains its tensile strength for a long period of time because, once cut, it takes over a year to heal enough to withstand the normal stresses place on it?

a. Skin

b. Fascia

c. Peritoneum

d. Subcutaneous

84. (031) what type of sutures is used in an abdominal wound closure to support the primary suture line and eliminate dead spaces?

a. Tertiary

b. Traction

c. Retention

d. Retainable

 

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