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1. What is the last step in file management?
a. Deleting records
b. Archiving files.
c. Cleaning records
d. Periodically scanning user time.
2. Within the 3 tiers of the DoD CERT, what is generated when new
vulnerabilities exist but are generally categorized as low risk?
a. IAVA
b. DCTA
c. IAVB
d. TCNO
3. What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal
networks?
a. Network-connected desktop systems with modems
that make calls to the public-switched network
b. Personnel that continue to misuse the network
by surfing the web.
c. Access to the network through backdoors left
by system administrators.
d. Network-connected desktop systems with modems
that make calls to and accept calls from the public-switched network
4. When a trigger point in HP Open View is reached, what is generated?
a. Fault
b. Event
c. Error
d. Report
5. What do we call the core set of software instructions contained in
operating systems on which the higher-level functions are based?
a. BOOT.IOS.
b. ROOT.SYS.
c. System Kernel.
d. Boot Kernel.
6. Recertification/Accreditation on systems with no changes to the
baseline are accomplished at a maximum of
a. 36 months.
b. 24 months
c. 60 months
d. 48 months
7. What is the first logical step in network troubleshooting?
a. Create a plan of action
b. Consider the possibilities
c. Define the main problem.
d. Gather facts.
8. When a volume is formatted with NTFS, what group is automatically
assigned full control permission to the volume?
a. Local group
b. Everyone group.
c. Built-in group.
d. Global group.
9. How many seconds is the default time set to for the BOOT.INI file to
wait before loading the default operating system?
a. 40
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30
10. What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame
errors that are related to a specific protocol?
a. Protocol statistics.
b. Connection statistics
c. Node discovery.
d. MAC node statistics.
11. What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree
structure is reserved for vendors-related label and leaf objects associated with
specific manufactured equipment?
a. Mgmt
b. Private
c. Directory
d. Experimental
12. What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer
application is activated?
a. MAC node statistics
b. Protocol statistics.
c. Node discovery.
d. Connection statistics
13. An administrator would normally allocate more file space to users
maintaining
a. Excel spreadsheets
b. Word templates
c. PowerPoint files.
d. Databases
14. What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the
number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
a. Node discovery.
b. MAC node statistics
c. Protocol statistics
d. Connection statistics.
15. What troubleshooting device physically connects the transmit pins to
the receive pins to test a network device?
a. Bit error rate tester.
b. Network Sniffer.
c. Protocol analyzer
d. Loopback plug
16. Areas of consideration for network planning include the
a. licensing mode
b. frequency of message traffic.
c. TCNO
d. computer Security Assistance
Program
17. What SNMP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting
management data to the management system?
a. Primary domain Controller
b. Agent
c. Backup Domain Controller
d. Manager
18. What protocol's primary use is to obtain connectivity to the large
base of Novell NetWare clients
a. Internetwork Packet
Exchange/Sequenced Packet Exchange (IPX/SPX)
b. Data Link Control (DLC) Protocol
c. Transfer Control Protocol/Internet
Protocol (TCP/IP)
d. NetBIOS Extended User Interface
(NetBEUI)
19. What Unix line command is used to manually collect interface
statistics on a particular network node?
a. rnetstat
b. ping
c. netstat
d. Sniff
20. What diagnostic command shows if it connected to the distant end?
a. Ping
b. TRACERT
c. ipconfg.
d. winipcfg.
21. What type of network server is dedicated to an intensive application
or database
a. Member servers
b. Primary domain controller
c. Stand-alone servers
d. Backup domain controller
22. Who is responsible for disseminating computer threat advisories in the
form of TCNOs to Air Force units worldwide?
a. HQ AFCA.
b. AFCERT
c. HQ AIA.
d. HQ AIA.
23. What is the first function that initiates when a machine is turned on?
a. BOOT.INI file
b. Micro-diagnostics check
c. Driver diagnostics check
d. Power-on self test.
24. What is one of the most common types of hardware devices used for
network troubleshooting?
a. Network Sniffer
b. Loopback plug.
c. Protocol analyzer.
d. Bit error rate tester.
25. Who must approve all information protection tools prior to their use?
a. AFCERT
b. DISA
c. AFCA
d. HQ USAF
26. What type of group has a wide set of predetermined functions plus
rights and permissions already assigned to support those functions?
a. Built-in groups
b. Local groups
c. System groups
d. Global groups
27. Where are global group profiles maintained?
a. Primary domain controller
b. Backup domain controller
c. Member servers
d. Stand-alone servers
28. What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and
developing communications software?
a. Protocol analyzer.
b. Network Root router.
c. Windows NT Advanced server.
d. Hewlett Packard OpenView.
29. What function checks for damaged frames by recalculating the 32-bit
Cyclic Redundancy Check of the received frame and comparing it to the received
32-bit Cyclic Redundancy Check in the Frame Check Sequence field?
a. Media access control frame.
b. Network interface card.
c. Transport layer of the OSI
reference model
d. Session layer of the OSI reference
model
30. What network function identifies the security events that
administrators may want to track on a server?
a. Audit policies
b. System policies.
c. User rights policies
d. Account policies
31. What guides the creation of a new user account on a base network?
a. Local unit instructions
b. Air Force instructions.
c. Base operating instructions.
d. MAJCOM network instructions
32. What is used to verify the level of availability an individual has to
the resource
a. Rights.
b. Access control lists.
c. Permissions
d. Hardware configuration.
33. What network policy is a combination of user and computer settings
that control a user's working environment?
a. User rights policies
b. Audit policies
c. Account policies
d. System policies
34. What is one of the most important parts of security in DMS?
a. User-ID & passwords.
b. Private keys.
c. Fortezza card
d. Specific Algorithm encryption.
35. What are the two basic ways network faults can be detected?
a. Reactively and proactively
b. Automatically and proactively
c. Reactively and manually
d. Manually and automatically
36. After the system completes the Power-on self-test, what happens next?
a. A micro-diagnostics check.
b. The driver.sys file is read and
loaded into the WINNT_ROOT directory
c. The operating system is loaded
d. The Master Boot Record is loaded
and executed
37. What protocol enables virtual private networks to exist over the
Internet?
a. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol
(PPTP)
b. NetBIOS Extended User Interface
(NetBEUI)
c. Internetwork Packet
Exchange/Sequenced Packet Exchange (IPX/SPX).
d. Transfer Control Protocol/Internet
Protocol (TCP/IP).
38. What are the most common, immediate, and service-affecting types of
faults?
a. Failed services and broken network
connection
b. Broken network connections and
used up bandwidth.
c. Used up bandwidth and devices that
have lost power
d. Devices that have lost power and
broken network connections.
39. In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you map your network
topology (both the physical and the logical)?
a. Determine requirements.
b. Know thyself
c. Network monitoring.
d. Policy formation.
40. What is a hierarchical, structured format that defines the network
management information available from network devices?
a. Object identifier
b. Management Information Base
c. Network device map
d. Network protocol list
41. What action does an administrator accomplish to create a new network
policy?
a. Creates a new policy using the
create.exe command
b. Saves the changes to a default
policy under a different name
c. Saves the changes to a default
policy then renames it.
d. Copies the default policy to a new
name and then makes changes to it
42. What type of TCNO requires immediate attention from all agencies and
identifies vulnerabilities being actively used to gain unauthorized access to
DoD systems?
a. Emergency.
b. Urgent
c. Immediate
d. Routine
43. What network architecture uses multiple systems for network
management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as
clients?
a. Hierarchical
b. Centralized
c. Hybrid
d. Distributed
44. Within the 3 tiers of the DoD CERT, what tier addresses new
vulnerabilities that do not pose an immediate threat to DoD systems, but are
significant enough that noncompliance with the corrective action could escalate
the threat
a. IAVA
b. IAVB
c. DCTA
d. TCNO
45. In what Windows NT System directory is the profiles directory located?
a. MS_ROOT.
b. WINNT_ROOT
c. MS_ADMIN
d. WTNNT_ADMIN.
46. What operational SNMP message is an unsolicited message from an agent
to the manager?
a. Trap
b. Get
c. GetNext
d. Set
47. Most bases require a network password to be at least how many
characters long?
a. 9
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
48. What are network attacks that bypass the firewall?
a. Identification spoofing and
tunneling.
b. Tunneling and application-based
attacks.
c. Second message encryption and
identification spoofing
d. Application-based attacks and
second message encryption
49. What do we call frames that consist of garbled bits of data that are
transmitted continuously on the network?
a. Dribbles
b. Jabbers
c. Collision
d. network storm
50. What alarm browser category indicates if an alarm is related to other
alarms?
a. Cor
b. Ack.
c. Severity
d. Source
51. What is the only approved method for sanitizing magnetic media?
a. Overwriting.
b. Degaussing.
c. Formatting.
d. Deleting.
52. What type of user profile is specified within the User Manager for
Domains environment profile settings and is downloaded from the server every
time the user logs in?
a. Local profiles
b. User profiles
c. Roaming profiles
d. Default profiles
53. When accessing devices through the Network Management System, what
community string gives you the ability to change the device settings?
a. read-write
b. Get
c. read-only
d. Set
54. What is an indication that a noteworthy event has occurred on the
network?
a. Fault
b. Alarm.
c. Event
d. Notification
55. Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside
above what layer of the OSI model?
a. Transport
b. Session
c. Presentation
d. Application
56. What network protocol is typically used in small local area network
(LAN) implementations of 50 nodes or less
a. Internetwork Packet
Exchange/Sequenced Packet Exchange (IPX/SPX)
b. Data Link Control (DLC) Protocol
c. Transfer Control Protocol/Internet
Protocol (TCP/IP)
d. NetBIOS Extended User Interface
(NetBEUI)
57. How many bytes does the minimum packet size for the IP protocol
contain
a. 64
b. 28
c. 128
d. 256
58. We can break performance management into what two separate functional
categories?
a. Analyzing and tuning
b. Monitoring and analyzing
c. Monitoring and replacing.
d. Monitoring and tuning
59. In the Windows NT server operating system, what function controls
features such as desktop colors and settings, program group, start menu
settings, and network connections?
a. Local profiles
b. User profiles
c. Default profiles
d. Roaming profiles
60. How many different categories of information does the performance
monitor provide you about your network?
a. 21
b. 7
c. 19
d. 14
61. What network protocol is used for network connection to Hewlett
Packard network printers
a. Internetwork Packet
Exchange/Sequenced Packet Exchange (IPX/SPX)
b. NetBIOS Extended User Interface
(NetBEUI)
c. Transfer Control Protocol/Internet
Protocol (TCP/IP)
d. Data Link Control (DLC) Protocol
62. What IP address is used to Ping a computer's own NIC?
a. 126.0.0.1
b. 127.0.0.1.
c. 128.0.0.1.
d. 129.0.0.1.
63. What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of
rules that accept or reject a message based on information in the message's
header (a packet): the source address, the destination address, and the port?
a. Bastion host.
b. Proxy.
c. Packet filtering.
d. Intrusion detection
64. Ideally, the average network utilization value should be less than
a. 25 percent
b. 20 percent
c. 30 percent
d. 40 percent
65. The simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network
addresses we call
a. packet filtering.
b. proxy.
c. intrusion detection.
d. bastion host.
66. When a new folder or file is created on an NTFS partition, what
permissions are automatically assigned?
a. Inherited permissions of the
folder in which it's contained
b. Global group permissions
c. No permissions are automatically
assigned
d. Everyone group permission.
67. During the initial logon, what type of profile does the Windows NT
server operating system use to create the local profile for that machine
a. Local profiles
b. User profiles
c. Default profiles
d. Roaming profiles
68. If a user has a password that is LMac15)) when logging into a Windows
NT LAN, which of the following must that individual use?
a. lmAC15))
b. lmac15))
c. LMac15))
d. lMaC15))
69. Who is the IAVA process manager?
a. AFCERT.
b. DoD CERT.
c. DISA
d. HQ AIA.
70. What Windows NT line command is used to manually collect interface
statistics on a particular network node?
a. Sniff
b. Ping
c. netstat.
d. metstat.
71. What is the round-trip delay for each node usually indicated in?
a. Milliseconds.
b. Seconds.
c. Microseconds.
d. Picoseconds
72. What type of network errors do jabbers usually cause?
a. High utilization and inability to
transmit.
b. Collisions and inability to
transmit.
c. High utilization and collisions
d. Repeat transmissions and inability
to transmit
73. What color does the Network Management System display when a network
object may face A potential problem?
a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Cyan
d. Red
74. Why do you troubleshoot only one possibility of a problem at a time?
a. For better documentation
development
b. Isolate a definite cause if the
action fixes the problem
c. To effectively eliminate ideas not
the problem.
d. To ensure all personnel are
informed of the results
75. What network architecture has a network management platform on one
computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management
duties?
a. Hybrid
b. Hierarchical
c. Distributed
d. Centralized
76. In the event that the PDC is no longer functioning, what action is
taken to make the BDC take over the responsibility
a. No action is required
b. The BDC is promoted to the PDC
position
c. The IP address of the BDC is
changed to the IP address of the PDC
d. The logical name of the BDC is
changed to the logical name of the PDC
77. What file system mandates the 8.3 (filename.ext) naming restriction be
utilized when naming a file
a. Unix File System
b. File Allocation Table
c. File Technologies System
d. New Technologies File System
78. What do we define as the capabilities, intentions, and attack methods
of adversaries to exploit, or any circumstance or event with the potential to
cause harm to information or an information system?
a. Event
b. Threat.
c. Intrusion
d. Suspected intrusion
79. What standard is utilized by the DMS for directory services?
a. X.500.
b. TCP/IP
c. X.400.
d. SMTP.
80. Within the 3 tiers of the DoD CERT, what tier documents a new
vulnerability that poses an immediate, potentially severe threat to DoD systems
a. IAVB
b. IAVA
c. DCTA
d. TCNO
81. What is the classification of sanitized storage media unless
prohibited by other policies?
a. Sensitive
b. Unclassified.
c. Secret.
d. FOUO
82. What operational SNMP message is used to modify the value of one or
more instances of management information?
a. Set
b. Get
c. GetNext
d. Trap
83. What action identifies options for minimizing the effects of detected
or predicted faults?
a. Fault correction
b. Fault diagnosis.
c. Fault detection.
d. Documentation
84. What standard is utilized by the DMS for messaging services?
a. X.500.
b. TCP/IP.
c. SMTP.
d. X.400
85. Within how many bytes of transmission should a network interface card
sense a collision and stop transmitting?
a. 48
b. 24
c. 128
d. 64
86. What form do we use to annotate storage media has been sanitized?
a. Standard Form 712.
b. Standard Form 700.
c. Standard Form 701.
d. Standard Form 711.
87. What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic tapes?
a. Degaussing.
b. Overwriting
c. Deleting
d. Formatting
88. What software program protects classified data by erasing it from the
disk so that it is unrecoverable?
a. WIPEINFO
b. DELETEINFO.
c. DELETEDATA.
d. WIPEDATA.
89. Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at what layers of the
OSI reference model?
a. Data link and physical.
b. Data link and session.
c. Session and media access control.
d. Physical and transport
90. What color does the Network Management System display when a network
object is not functioning?
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Cyan
91. Gathering information about current network device settings is a step
of what functional network management area?
a. Accounting management
b. Performance management
c. Configuration management
d. Security management
92. When bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame, what type of
error occurs?
a. Collisions.
b. Frame check sequence
c. Retransmission.
d. Alignment
93. What is the process of analyzing threats against and vulnerabilities
of an information system?
a. Authentication.
b. Risk analysis.
c. Accreditation
d. Certification.
94. A feature of networking that enables individuals to designate
resources they want other users to be able to access through the network we call
a. rights.
b. sharing.
c. permissions.
d. access control lists.
95. In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you start a Base Network
Steering Group?
a. Know thyself.
b. Network monitoring.
c. Policy formation.
d. Determine requirements
96. Which function of performance management tracks historical data by
tracking activities on the network?
a. Monitoring
b. Analyzing
c. Tuning
d. Gathering
97. Why is a user required to change their password upon logging onto the
network for the first time?
a. To ensure they understand how to
create a password.
b. To make sure they understand how
to create a password
c. To ensure they don't use the
network default password
d. To ensure the integrity of their
unique password
98. What is one way to increase file server efficiency?
a. Reducing the file space per user
b. Reducing the hours of use of less
important users
c. Reducing the available hours of
use
d. Regularly running defragmentation
software.
99. What type of groups do not have any inherent permissions by default?
a. Global groups
b. Local groups.
c. Built-in groups
d. System groups
100. What are three classic ways to authenticate oneself?
a. Something you
know, have, or something you are.
b. Finger and
voiceprints, or retinal scans
c. Passwords,
Fortezza cards, identification cards.
d. Passwords,
fingerprints, identification cards
101. What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to
identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?
a. Firewalls
b. Network
management software
c. Intrusion
detection devices.
d. Vulnerability
scanners
102. What diagnostics command is used exclusively on Windows machines?
a. ipconfg.
b. TRACERT.
c. Tcpconfg.
d. winipcfg.
103. What is at the very core of the Barrier Reef process?
a. Firewall
configurations.
b. Access control
lists.
c. Base network
security policy.
d. Network security
training and education.
104. What do you do after you gather all the facts about a network
problem?
a. Define the main
problem.
b. Consider the
possibilities
c. Create a plan of
action
d. Implement the
plan
105. What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related
activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?
a. Bastion host
b. Intrusion
detection
c. Proxy.
d. Packet
filtering.
106. What policies allow administrators to control security settings for
user accounts?
a. Account policies
b. Audit policies
c. User rights
policies
d. System policies.
107. What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to
significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
a. Network
management server
b. Fault management
server
c. Performance
management server
d. Security
management server
108. What phase of the DoD Information Technology Scurity Certification &
Accreditation Process process gathers data about the system to analyze?
a. Validation.
b. Definition
c. Verification.
d. Post
accreditation.
109. What diagnostics command is used exclusively on Windows NT machines?
a. Ping
b. TRACERT
c. Winipcfg
d. Ipconfg
110. What type of network problem(s) is caused by collisions on the
domain?
a. Jabbers only
b. High utilization
or jabbers
c. Inability to
transmit
d. High utilization
only
111. What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the
ability of the subject to access certain information?
a. Authentication
b. Recertification.
c. Identification
d. Accreditation
112. What types of statistics does the HP Open View interface traffic
graph display?
a. Packets and
errors received only.
b. Packets
transmitted and received only.
c. Errors
transmitted and received only.
d. Packets and
errors transmitted and received
113. What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work
together to troubleshoot a network problem?
a. Failure to
interview the users
b. Lack of
communication during the troubleshooting process
c. Troubleshooting
multiple possibilities at one time.
d. Failure to
accurately observe and thoroughly document the results of their individual
efforts
114. What usually has the most significance when determining the amount of
space and access time user are given on a file server?
a. Rank only
b. Job position
only
c. Rank and job
position
d. Job position and
duty hours.
115. What is the correct makeup of an Air Force network password
a. Upper and
lowercase letters and special characters
b. Upper and
lowercase letters and numbers
c. Upper case
letters, numbers and special characters.
d. Upper and
lowercase letters, numbers and special characters
116. What is a web-based process that incorporates identification and
evaluation of new vulnerabilities disseminates technical responses and tracks
compliance within the DoD community?
a. AFCERT.
b. DoD CERT.
c. IAVA
d. TCNO
117. What diagnostics test is usually run on an NIC to ensure it is
functional?
a. CTS/RTS
b. Loopback.
c. Transmission
trace
d. Self test
diagnostic
118. What is required for Windows NT to run on most systems
a. BOOT.INI and
NTBOTDD.SYS
b. NTBOOTDD.SYS,
and BOOTSECT.DOS.
c. BOOTSECT.DOS and
NTDETECT.COM
d. BOOT.INI and
NTDETECT.COM.
119. What network devices act as electronic "gate guards," inspecting
traffic and allowing only authorized traffic to enter the base local area
network?
a. Firewalls only.
b. Access control
lists.
c. Proxy servers
only.
d. Proxy servers
and firewalls.
120. What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad FCS,
short frames, and jabbers?
a. Node discovery
b. Connection
statistics
c. Protocol
statistics.
d. MAC node
statistics
121. What level of network management activity are you working at when, as
the network manager, you are monitoring and troubleshooting components to
eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
a. Reactive
b. Inactive
c. Interactive
d. Proactive
122. You can find the round-trip delay between a source and target node by
using the utilities
a. Send and Trace.
b. Ping and Echo.
c. Echo and Send
d. Ping and Trace.
123. What operational SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of
information with minimal overhead?
a. GetNext
b. Get
c. Trap
d. Set
124. What is the first question "network experts" ask when they begin to
troubleshoot a network problem?
a. What is the size
of the network?
b. Where is the
network map?
c. Who are the
critical users?
d. What services
are down?
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